ORAL AND PRACTICAL TESTS Completion of the oral and practical tests is usually the final step in becoming certificated or in adding a rating to a mechanic certificate.
An oral and a practical test must be taken for each rating.
Oral and practical tests are administered by FAA Flight Standards inspectors or by FAA-designated mechanic examiners (DMEs).
If an FAA inspector gives the tests, the required facility, tools, materials, and supples nust be furnished or arranged for by the applicant. The adequacy and suitability of the facilities can be determined at the time arrangements for the tests are being made.
If a DME gives the tests, he will furnish the facility and can usually arrange to furnish the tools, materials and supplies needed. DMES are not paid by the FAA for their services or the use of their facilities and equipment during the examination of mechanic applicants and are authorized to charge a fee for administering oral and practical tests. The names and addresses of the FAA-designated mechanic examiners in each district can be obtained from the FAA Flight Standards district office that serves the area or from Advisory Circular No.
183-30, Directory of FAA Designated Mechanic Examiners.
The person administering the oral and practical tests will provide an application form and give detailed instructions on how it should be filled out. He will explain each of the projects to be assigned during the practical test and give some indication of the level of performance expected.
The oral test may be administered along with the practical test in the form of questions about the projects being performed, or it may be administered separately, before or after the practical test. The examiner will not attempt to trick or mislead you in any way with his oral questions or project assignments.
Any assignment or question that you do not understand should be clarified before continuing with the test.
THE ORAL TEST Oral test questions cover the same subjects as the written tests and are intended to show how well the applicant can make use of his knowledge. Oral test questions fall generally into three types: (a) questions closely related to assigned practical projects-to further explore the applicant's understanding of the tasks being performed, (b) questions not related to a specific project-to evaluate the applicant's ability in areas in which a skill demonstration is not practical, and (c) questions to determine whether additional projects need to be assigned.
SAMPLE ORAL TEST QUESTIONS Some examples of the type of questions asked during the oral test are:
1. How would you determine the leveling means for a specific aircraft?
2. What is a blind rivet and how is it used?
3. What is reinforcing tape and how is it used ?
4. What is the difference between welding and brazing?
5. What is a circuit breaker and how does it work!
6. What are two causes of vapor lock in a fuel line?
7. What is the purpose of a pump-unloading valve in a hydraulic system?
8. What cylinder should be removed last during disassembly of a radial aircraft engine?
9. What is detonation and how is it harmful?
10. How would you check a magneto for correct internal timing?
11. What is the purpose of an engine oildilution system?
12. How would you check a propeller for correct track?
13. How is the moment of an item of equipment determined in computing aircraft weight and balance?
14. What precautions are required when fueling an aircraft?
15. What are the procedures for correcting generator brush arcing?
16. What is the most common method for determining the state of charge of a leadacid battery?
17. How would you determine the effect that the installation of a new item of equipment has on the balance of an aircraft?
18. What is the purpose of a fuel tank sump and how is it inspected?
19. How would you determine the direction of rotation of a direct current motor?
20. Why is a reverse-current cutout relay required in a generator circuit?
21. What type compressor is most commonly used in aircraft turbine engines?
22. What are the installation practices for thermocouple leads?
23. What is the purpose and operation of the air/oil cooler in an engine lubrication system?
24. Explain the four-stroke, five-event cycle of a reciprocating engine.
25. What is the purpose of the turbine section in a jet engine!
26. What is an Airworthiness Directive?
27. What is the difference between a twoposition propeller and a constant-speed propeller?
28. What are the general characteristics of the wood commonly used in aircraft con-
29. How is stability about the horizontal axis of an aircraft obtained?
THE PRACTICAL TEST The practical test consists of assigned work projects to test mechanical skill and ability to organize work, select and follow correct procedures, apply appropriate techniques, and determine an acceptable level of workmanship.
The person administering the test will select projects that utilize as much as possible equipment and procedures that are familiar to the applicant.
A high level of manipulative skill in performing complex operations is not expected.
Some of the basic skills must have been developed, however, and must be demonstrated during the practical test.
Applicant's performance on projects in areas described as Level 3 in the section entitled "The Written Tests" will be expected to meet a return-to-service standard. If a project must be performed in accordance with a manufacturer's instruction or other data, the examiner will expect you to consult the instruction or Any of the operations required to complete the actions in Level 2 and Level 3 action lines are potential practical projects. Notice, for instance, the entry under E. Welding" of the Airframe Structures section of the listing.
This entry is entitled iSolder, braze, gas- and arc-weld steel.-Level 2. Since this is a Level 2 action line, the applicant may be asked to perform basic welding operations, but he will not be required to be a highly skilled welder to pass the practical test.
On the other hand, consider the entry under "E. Materials and Processes" of the General section of the listing. The action line, "Inspect and check welds.-Level 3," indicates that the practical test may include a project that requires the applicant to inspect and make a dependable judgment about the quality of a welded joint. His judgment should be based upon (a) a generalized knowledge of welding materials, (b) a specific knowledge of the type of welded joint being inspected, and (c) the ability to find out all the things he needs to know about the weld in order to judge its
SAMPLE PRACTICAL TEST PROJECTS The following are typical of the projects assigned during mechanic practical tests.
1. Safety a turnbuckle.
2. Make a sheet metal splice.
3. Inspect a wood structure.
4. Remove, clean, inspect, and reinstall a brake master cylinder.
5. Gas-weld a steel tube.
6. Attach an electrical cable terminal.
7. Make up a section of fuel line and install
8. Bleed and adjust hydraulic brakes.
9. Compute empty weight center of gravity and the most forward and rearward loaded center of gravity of an aircraft.
10. Time the valves of an engine.
11. Adjust a carburetor float level.
12. Remove, clean, inspect, and reinstall an engine oil filter.
13. Install and time magnetos.
14. Remove and install a propeller.
15. Execute FAA Form 337, Major Repair and Alteration.
16. Perform a gear retraction test on an air-
29. Install engine cylinders and torque the holddown nuts.
30. Perform a cylinder compression test.
Oral and practical tests are graded as soon as they are completed, and the applicant is informed of his grade. If any part of either test is failed, the person administering the tests will issue a notice of disapproval of the application showing the titles of oral and practical subjects failed. He will also return the Airman Written Test Report that was presented by the applicant as evidence of having passed the written test.
An applicant who fails a test may apply for a retest as prescribed in FAR Part 65.
An applicant has the option of returning to the same FAA office or DME or applying to any other office or DME for the retest.
retest will include only the subjects failed.
17. Replace shakeproof cowling fasteners.
18. Perform a fabric strength test.
19. Flash a direct current generator field.
20. Adjust turbine engine fuel controls.
21. Install packing seals and rings on hydraulic components.
22. Remove and install engine-driven hydraulic pumps.
23. Check an oxygen system for leaks.
24. Remove, clean, inspect, and install a fuel strainer.
25. Connect batteries to a constant-current When all parts of the tests have been passed, the FAA office or DME will issue a temporary mechanic certificate. The following excerpts from FAR Part 65 pertain to temporary cer- § 65.13 Temporary certificate.
A certificate and ratings effective for a period of not more than 90 days may be issued to a qualified applicant, pending review of his application and supplementary documents and the issue of the certificate and ratings for battery charger.
26. Locate cracks in welded assemblies using dye penetrant.
27. Start an engine, and check for proper which he applied."
Permanent certificates are prepared and issued by the Airman Certification Branch of the Federal Aviation Administration and
28. Adjust idle r.p.m. and mixture on a con- mala te the addrese indicap ho tion fori. ventional carburetor.
SAMPLE WRITTEN TEST QUESTIONS The questions in this section are similar to those contained in FAA written tests for mechanics. They are included to show the type of questions used. No attempt has been made to cover any particular subjects.
1. What must a certificated mechanic with 1. increase in direct proportion to the both airframe and powerplant ratings do prior volume increase.
to returning to service an aircraft on which he 2. remain the same.
has performed and approved a 100-hour in- 3. be doubled.
4. be reduced to one-half its original
1. Make the proper entries in the appro- value.
priate logbooks. 4. How many AN470AD-1-6 rivets will be
2. Present his work and records to a required to attach a 10" « 5" splice plate if mechanic holding an Inspection Au- single-row, minimum edge distance, 4D spacthorization for final approval and release. ing is used? 1. 60 rivets.
2. 56 rivets.
3. Complete the required copies of FAA 3. 62 rivets.
Form 337 including an accurate de- 4. 52 rivets.
scription of the work performed, date, mechanic's name, and certificate number.
4. Notify the local FAA maintenance inspector in writing of his intention to return the aircraft to service. FLAT B
2. After making a major structural repair to an aircraft that is to be returned to service, ~ 3/16"R FAA Form 337, Major Repair and Alteration, - 0625 must be prepared. How many copies are re- FLAT AÙ quired and what is the final disposition of the completed forms? 4."
1. Three one copy for the aircraft owner and two copies for the FAA.
2. Two one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA.
3. Three one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for the FAA, and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual.
4. Two both copies for the FAA.
3. If the container volume of a confined gas is doubled (assume temperature remains constant), the pressure will
5. The length of flat A in the above drawing is
1. 3.750 inches.
2. 3.875 inches.
3. 3.813 inches.
4. 3.937 inches.
6. When making a forward weight and balance check to determine that the center of gravity (c.g.) will not exceed the forward limit during extreme conditions, the items of useful load which should be computed at their minimum weights are those located aft of the 47
1. forward c.g. limit
2. rearward c.g. limit.
3. datum.
4. empty weight c.g.
20 15
7. The micrometer scale shown above indicates a measurement of
1. 0.5195 inch.
2. 0.4945 inch.
3. 0.4695 inch.
4. 0.4819 inch.
8. As the velocity of the air across an aircraft wing increases, the pressure of the air on the upper surface
1. increases.
2. decreases.
3. drops to zero.
4. remains unchanged.
9. If the cross-sectional area of a given conductor is increased to four times its original value and the length and temperature remain constant, the resistance of the conductor will be
1. one-fourth its original value.
2. four-times its original value.
3. the same as its original value.
4. found by multiplying the original resistance by the percentage increase in cross-sectional area.
10. Which of the following sequences of connecting and tightening the battery leads should result in the safest procedure for installation of a battery in an aircraft with a single-wire, ground-return electrical system?
1. Connect and tighten the negative (ground) lead before connecting the positive lead.
2. Connect the negative (ground) lead, connect the positive lead, then tighten in the same order.
3. Connect the positive lead, connect the negative (ground) lead, then tighten in the same order.
4. Connect and tighten the positive lead before connecting the negative (ground) lead.
11. Which of the following statements relating to the conduct of a 100-hour inspection is
1. The inspecting agency shall use an inspection form as a checklist while performing a 100-hour inspection.
2. The inspecting agency is not required to use an inspection form as a checklist while performing a 100-hour inspec-
3. The inspecting agency shall use only the inspection form furnished and prescribed by the FAA Administrator as a checklist while performing a 100- hour inspection.
4. The inspecting agency shall use only the inspection form furnished and prescribed by the manufacturer as a checklist while performing a 100-hour inspection.
12. Which of the following has little or no effect upon the rate of vaporization of a given fuel?
1. The pressure of the surrounding air.
2. The temperature of the fuel.
3. The temperature of the surrounding air.
4. The antiknock value of the fuel.
13. If an aircraft is cruising in level flight and the stick or control column is moved forward, the elevator will
1. go down and the nose of the aircraft will go down.
2. go up and the nose of the aircraft will go down.
3. go down and the nose of the aircraft will go up.
4. go up and the nose of the aircraft will go up.
14. During the inspection of an aircraft equipped with a push-pull tube-type control system, the threaded rod ends should
1. be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the inspection hole provided.
2. be checked to determine that the ballbearing end is properly safetied to the push-pull rod with brass or stainless steel safety wire.
3. be lubricated with waterproof highpressure grease.
4. not be adjusted in length for rigging purposes because the rod ends have been properly positioned and staked during manufacture
15. How should loosely adhering dust and dirt be removed from the exterior surfaces of aircraft transparent plastics?
1. Spray the surface with any commercial window cleaner.
2. Wipe the surface with a moist chamois.
3. Flush the surface with water.
4. Wipe the surface with a dry cloth.
16. When rigging the wings on a monoplane equipped with front and rear lift struts, the general practice is to
1. control dihedral angle by the length of the front struts.
2. establish the incidence angle by the length of the front struts, and wash-in and wash-out by adjusting the length of the rear struts.
3. pre-rig the rear struts and adjust the length of front struts for propellertorque correction as required.
4. use struts of fixed length and rig in propeller-torque correction by the use of ground-adjustable rudder tabs.
17. It is not considered good aircraft finishing technique to
1. spray enamels over dopes or lacquers.
2. spray bituminous paint on wood.
3. spray dope or lacquer over unbaked enamels.
4. use zine chromate primer on aluminumalloy structures.
18. A lapped and doped spanwise seam at the trailing edge of a wing should be covered with surface tape at least 3 inches wide. Prior to application, the surface tape should be notched at intervals not to exceed 6 inches to
1. make it easier to put on severe curva-
2. prevent the entire tape from loosening in the event the tape begins to separate.
3. increase the length of the tape's edges for better doping.
4. prevent raveling of the tape.
19. Repairs or splices involving stringers on the lower surface of stressed-skin metal wings are usually
1. not permitted.
2. permitted but are normally more critical in reference to strength than similar repairs to the stringers on the upper surface.
3. permitted but are normally more critical in reference to aerodynamic cleanness than similar repairs to the upper surface.
4. permitted only if the damage does not exceed 6 inches in any direction.
20. Which of the following is not indicated by the aluminum sheet designation ALCLAD 2021-136?
1. The process or combination of operations used to produce the stable temper.
2. The thickness of the sheet.
3. Major alloying element.
4. Method used to produce stable temper (whether strain hardened or heat treated).
21. When steel hi-shear rivets are used to assemble aluminum alloy structural components, they should be
1. used at no greater ratio than one hishear rivet for each three aluminum alloy rivets.
2. driven at 830° to 860° F. in order to reduce the possibility of cracking.
3. coated with zinc chromate primer prior to assembly to reduce dissimilar-metal corrosion.
4. fitted to extremely close tolerances.
22. The type of fluid to be used in an aircraft hydraulic system can be determined
1. only by a chemical analysis of a sample of fluid from the system.
2. by the markings on or near the reservoir filler opening.
3. by the color code attached to the hydraulic lines.
4. by mixing a sample of the fluid to be added with a sample of the fluid in the system and observing the reaction.
23. What will cause an engine-driven hydraulic pump of the correct capacity to fail to maintain normal system pressure during the operation of a cowl flap actuating unit?
1. Severe bends in the cowl flap actuating cylinder lines.
2. Severe restriction in the pump outlet.
3. A partial restriction in the in-port of the selector valve.
4. A partial restriction in the out-port of the selector valve.
24. Many landing gear systems use sequence valves to cause one hydraulic operation to follow another in a definite order. These valves are classified as
1. pressure control valves.
2. flow control valves.
3. timelag valves.
4. automatic crossflow valves.
25. Shuttle valves installed in large aircraft braking systems allow
1. two independent systems to operate the same actuator if necessary.
2. the safe application of brakes regardless of ground speed due to the compensating action of the valves.
3. fluid to bypass from the right wheel cylinder to the left wheel cylinder if braking pressures are different.
4. the compensating port, interconnecting both master cylinders, to discharge fluid alternately from one to the other.
26. Cabin pressurization differential pressure is normally controlled by
1. varying the outflow valve position with changes of engine r.p.m. at constant altitude.
2. maintaining cabin supercharger speed at a fixed rate regardless of altitude by a constant-speed drive.
3. constant-volume cabin superchargers and an automatically positioned cabin outflow valve.
4. manually regulating the setting of the butterfly valve located between the supercharger and the cabin.
27. The wing leading edges of transport category turbojet airplanes are generally protected from ice accumulation by
1. hot air bleed from the engine compressor section to the leading edge.
2. hot air from combustion heaters which are located in each wing.
3. electrically heated synthetic rubber boots over the leading edge.
4. pneumatically operated expansion boots on the leading edge.
28. Aircraft equipped with a d.c. electrical system often require a source of a.c. to operate communication or navigation equipment. What electrical device is used to convert d.c. to a.c.?
1. A rectifier.
2. An inverter.
3. An exciter.
4. A capacitor.
29. Which of the following methods will be effective in reversing the direction of rotation of a d.c. electric motor?
1. Reverse the direction of current flow through either the field or the armature.
2. Reverse the direction of current flow through the motor.
3. Rotate the brush assembly approximately 90 degrees.
4. Move the starting winding 180 de grees from its present position.
30. Which of the following is not a recommended aircraft electric cable practice?
1. All cables to single items of equipment should be grouped separately.
2. Insulating tubing should be installed over terminals and disconnect splices.
3. All splices in adjacent parallel conductors should be staggered.
4. Alternating current cables should be grouped with direct current cables.
31. What effect will increased humidity have on engine power output?
1. No appreciable change in power output.
2. Power output will decrease at all altitudes.
3. Power output will increase at all altitudes.
4. No effect at sea level but greater power output at altitude.
32. Where in the airstream is the induction system screen located in a reciprocating en-
1. After the carburetor.
2. Before the carburetor if the engine is equipped with a downdraft carburetor and after the carburetor if the engine is equipped with an updraft carburetor.
3. Before the carburetor.
4. Before the carburetor if the engine is equipped with an updraft carburetor and after the carburetor if the engine is equipped with a downdraft carbu-
33. What method is ordinarily used to make idle speed adjustments on a float-type carburetor?
1. An adjustable throttle stop or linkage.
2. A variable restriction in the drilled passageway which connects the air space of the float chamber and the carburetor venturi.
3. An orifice and adjustable tapered needle.
4. A variable restriction in the idle system fuel supply.
34. The use of water injection permits a reciprocating engine to be operated at high power output by
1. enriching the mixture.
2. suppressing detonation.
3. cooling the fuel-air charge as it passes through the intake manifold.
4. increasing the octane rating of the fuel.
35. Which of the following is not a factor in the operation of an automatic fuel control unit used on a turbojet engine?
1. Mixture control position.
2. Compressor inlet air density.
3. Compressor r.p.m.
4. Throttle position.
36. When does ignition occur in a four-stroke cycle engine?
1. Before the piston reaches top center on the compression stroke.
2. At top center of the compression stroke.
3. At the beginning of the power stroke.
4. After the piston begins its downward travel on the power stroke.
37. Burned or electrically distorted magneto breaker point contact surfaces usually indicate
1. primary circuit condenser not functioning properly.
2. use of improper fuel.
3. poor point lubrication.
4. shorted spark plug leads.
38. To what does the term 'spark plug reach" refer?
1. The length of the threaded portion of
2. The amount of center electrode exposed to the heat of combustion.
3. The heat range within which the spark plug is designed to operate.
4. The amount of insulator exposed to the heat of combustion.
39. An impulse coupling gives a momentary high spin to the magneto rotor and
1. retards the spark a predetermined amount during the starting process.
2. disengages the trailing electrode.
3. feeds battery current into the primary circuit of the magneto.
4. momentarily shorts out the primary condenser; thus, assists in giving a very "hot" spark for starting.
40. What is the number of crankshaft revolutions required to cause the five-lobe cam plate of a nine-cylinder radial engine to turn one complete revolution?
4. 4/2.
41. If an engine equipped with a constantspeed propeller is operated at part throttle and at cruising r.p.m., a reduction in r.p.m. with no change in throttle setting will result in
1. no change in manifold pressure.
2. an increase in manifold pressure.
3. a decrease in bmep.
4. a decrease in manifold pressure.
42. Thermocouple-type temperature indicating instrument systems
1. require no external power source.
2. are classed as balanced type, variable resistor circuits.
3. usually contain a balancing circuit in the instrument case to prevent fluctu- 51
ations of the aircraft electrical system voltage from affecting the temperature
4. will not indicate a true reading if the aircraft electrical system voltage varies beyond the range for which the instruments are calibrated.
43. Which of the following is correct in reference to installation of aluminum alloy baffle brackets under cylinder holddown nuts?
1. The practice is not recommended.
2. It is considered good practice because the soft aluminum will allow the nut to align perfectly with the cylinder flange surface.
3. It is not recommended unless all contact surfaces are properly treated to eliminate the possibility of dissimilarmetal corrosion.
4. It is considered good practice unless the added thickness of the bracket does not allow the nut slot to line up with the cotter pin hole within the range of recommended torque values.
44. What should be done before adjusting (to the "cold" clearance setting) the valve clearance of a nine-cylinder radial engine equipped with a four-lobe, double-track cam
1. Remove and visually inspect all cam follower assemblies.
2. Open all valve clearances to the "hot" or "timing" setting.
3. Determine the least worn cam flat on each track.
4. Open all valve clearances to approximately twice the required setting.
45. The purpose of the bypass valve on an oil cooler is to bypass the
1. hot oil into the hopper tank directly.
2. cold oil into the oil filter.
3. hot oil past the "Y" drain.
4. cold oil into the hopper tank directly.
46. Which of the following is referred to as the propeller blade face?
1. The root end of a propeller blade.
2. The flat side of a propeller blade.
3. The cambered side of a propeller blade.
4. The cuff around a propeller blade.
47. Hydraulically operated propellers, that are in the low r.p.m. position for starting, should not be changed to the high r.p.m. setting until a steady oil pressure is obtained. This procedure is followed to prevent
1. congealing of the oil in the nose case scavenger system.
2. erratic pitch change during later propeller operation.
3. oil starvation of the highly stressed engine bearings.
4. the possibility of an air lock forming in the propeller governor boost pump.
48. What is the primary purpose of propeller cones, as used with propellers that are installed on engines with splined shafts?
1. To prevent contact between the shaft splines and the propeller hub splines.
2. To prevent rotation of the propeller on the shaft.
3. To reduce acceleration loads on the shaft splines.
4. To center the propeller on the shaft.
49. If a constant-speed propeller control is set in the constant-speed range and the engine is being operated at cruising power,
1. retarding the throttle will result in an increase in blade pitch.
2. movement of the throttle will have no effect on blade pitch.
3. the r.p.m will vary directly with movement of the throttle.
4. advancing the throttle will result in an increase in blade pitch.
50. Why is a double-field winding (split field) used in some d.c. electric motors?
1. To allow the motor to operate in either direction (reversible motor).
2. One set of field windings is used as a magnetizing coil to actuate the arma-
3. One set of field windings is used as a magnetizing coil to engage the motor
4. One set of field windings is used as a magnetizing coil to disengage the motor clutch.
Answers to Sample Written Test Questions Question Question Question Number Answer Number Answer Number Answer 1 1 18 2 35 2 19 99199919121919 36 • 1 20 37 21 38 19141 10 10 53
RECOMMENDED STUDY MATERIALS The publications listed in this section will be helpful to persons studying for airframe and powerplant tests. However, they cannot be depended upon to provide the total technical information required for either rating.
It is the responsibility of each applicant to obtain study material appropriate to his own needs.
A variety of excellent text and reference material is available from commercial publishers. Most public and institutional libraries maintain technical reference sections and can often recommend specific textbooks and authors. Manufacturers' operation, maintenance, and instructional manuals are also a good source of technical material.
Publications identified as (GPO) in this section are available from the:
Superintendent of Documents U.S. Government Printing Office Washington, D.C. 20402, or from GPO bookstores located in major cities throughout the United States.
Publications identified as " (Free FAA)" in this section are available from:
U.S. Department of Transportation Publications Section, TAD-443.1 Washington, D.C. 20590 Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR)- The following regulations should be useful to a person studying for mechanic tests.
knowledge of the rules they contain is often helpful and sometimes necessary during the performance of mechanic privileges. FARS contain direct references for answering present written test questions. The appendix contains complete titles and ordering instructions for FARs.
FAR PART TITLE Definitions and Abbreviations Certification Procedures for Products and Parts Airworthiness Standards: Normal, Utility, and Acrobatic Category Airplanes 25 Airworthiness Standards: Transport Category Airplanes 27 Airworthiness Standards: Normal Category Rotorcraft 29 Airworthiness Standards: Transport Category Rotorcraft 33 Airworthiness Standards: Aircraft Engines Airworthiness Standards: Propellers 37 Technical Standard Order Authorizations 39 Airworthiness Directives ‡3 Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration Identification and Registration Marking 6ž Certification: Airmen Other Than Flight Crewmembers 91 General Operating and Flight Rules 121 Certification and Operations: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators of Large Aircraft FAA Advisory Circulars-The FAA issues advisory circulars to inform the aviation public in a systematic way of nonregulatory material of interest. Advisory circulars are issued in a numbered-subject system corre- 55
sponding to the numbering system used for Federal Aviation Regulations.
The advisory circulars most often used for general study purposes are:
AC 00-2 [latest revision] Advisory Circular Checklist. Provides a list of current FAA advisory circulars. (Free FAA) AC 25-5C Plane Sense. Provides general aviation information for the private aircraft owner. (Free FAA) AC 20-9 Personal Aircraft Inspection Handbook. Provides a general guide, in simple nontechnical language, for the inspection of aircraft. (GPO) AC 20-23D Interchange of Service Experience-Mechanical Difficulties. Advises of the malfunction and defect program and its relationship to the General Aviation Inspection Aids. (Free FAA) AC 20-43A Aircraft Fuel Contamination. Informs the aviation community of the potential hazards of fuel contamination, its control, and recommended fuel servicing procedures. (Free FAA) AC 43.13-1A Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices-Aircraft Inspection and Repair. Contains methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator for inspection and repair to civil aircraft. (GPO) AC 43.13-2 Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices-Aircraft Alterations. Contains methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Administrator in altering civil aircraft. (GPO) AC 65-9 Airframe & Powerplant Mechanics General Handbook. This handbook may be used for training mechanics or for on-the-job training in basic information on electricity, weight and balance.
physics, mathematics, mechanic privileges and limitations, etc. (GPO) AC 65-12 Airframe & Powerplant Mechanics Powerplant Handbook. This handbook may be used for training mechanics or for on-the-job training in the construction, theory of operation, and maintenance of aircraft powerplants.
(GPO) AC 65-15 Airframe & Powerplant Mechanics - Airframe Handbook. This handbook may be used for training mechanics or for on-the-job training in airframe construction, repair, and the operating theory of airframe systems.
(GPO) lars is shown below:
year. (Sub. GPO) (Free FAA) FAA) 56